Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 29.06.2025 09:38
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What do men like to be given for their birthday?
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
iOS 26 release date: Here’s when the new iPhone update will launch - 9to5Mac
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.